I have a very hard time believing that most feminists believe this...

[s_stabeler]

yes and no. It would be a problem for the relationship, yes, but it doesn't create an actual obligation that can override a lack of consent.(basically, it's reasonable for someone who is married to expect to be able to have sex. However, that does not allow you to dictate when)

Or in short, utterly refusing to have sex could be a justification for divorce on the grounds of irreconcilable differences, but it isn't justification for sex w/o consent